Medical entrance exams in India are a crucial milestone for aspiring doctors aiming to secure admission to top medical colleges in India. Conducted annually, these exams assess candidates’ knowledge in subjects such as Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. Highly competitive exams like NEET UG, NEET PG, AIIMS, JIPMER, and postgraduate entrance tests demand thorough preparation across diverse subjects, including Biology, Chemistry, Physics, Medical Sciences, Ayurveda, and Dentistry. Multiple-choice questions (MCQs) are a widely used and effective format for evaluating students’ understanding in these exams.
To help you excel, we present the Top 200 MCQs with Answers—a carefully curated collection designed for students pursuing MBBS, BDS, MD/MS, AYUSH, and other related fields. This comprehensive set covers key concepts and exam-focused topics, equipping you with the tools to enhance your preparation. Use these questions to strengthen your knowledge, boost your confidence, and get ready to achieve success in your medical entrance and postgraduate exams!
Top 50 MCQ’s for MBBS
1. Which one of the following structures is not present in prokaryotic cells?
A) Nucleus
B) Ribosomes
C) Cell Membrane
D) Mitochondria
Answer: D) Mitochondria
2. The fluid-filled cavity of a blastocyst is called:
A) Blastocoel
B) Yolk sac
C) Chorion
D) Amniotic sac
Answer: A) Blastocoel
3. Which part of the brain controls basic life functions such as heartbeat and breathing?
A) Cerebrum
B) Medulla Oblongata
C) Cerebellum
D) Thalamus
Answer: B) Medulla Oblongata
4. Which of the following is an example of a monosaccharide?
A) Sucrose
B) Glucose
C) Fructose
D) Both B and C
Answer: D) Both B and C
5. DNA replication is said to be semi-conservative because:
A) Both strands of DNA are replicated conservatively
B) Half of the DNA strand is conserved in the replication process
C) Two newly synthesized strands are combined together
D) It follows a law of inheritance
Answer: B) Half of the DNA strand is conserved in the replication process
6. The gas that causes a greenhouse effect in the Earth’s atmosphere is:
A) Oxygen
B) Methane
C) Carbon Dioxide
D) Nitrogen
Answer: C) Carbon Dioxide
7. The major protein in hair and nails is:
A) Collagen
B) Keratin
C) Elastin
D) Actin
Answer: B) Keratin
8. The structural and functional unit of the kidney is called:
A) Neuron
B) Nephron
C) Neucleous
D) Podocyte
Answer: B) Nephron
9. The blood group that can donate blood to all other blood groups is:
A) Type A
B) Type B
C) Type AB
D) Type O
Answer: D) Type O
10. Which of the following cells are responsible for the production of antibodies in the human body?
A) Erythrocytes
B) Thrombocytes
C) B-cells
D) T-cells
Answer: C) B-cells
11. The enzyme that is present in the stomach and helps in digestion is:
A) Amylase
B) Pepsin
C) Lipase
D) Trypsin
Answer: B) Pepsin
12. The molecule C6H12O6 refers to:
A) Oxygen
B) Glucose
C) Acetone
D) Water
Answer: B) Glucose
13. Which one of the following hormones is produced by the pancreas?
A) Thyroxine
B) Insulin
C) Adrenaline
D) Progesterone
Answer: B) Insulin
14. Which of the following diseases is caused by a bacterial infection?
A) Tuberculosis
B) AIDS
C) Malaria
D) Hepatitis
Answer: A) Tuberculosis
15. Which part of the human heart pumps oxygenated blood?
A) Right atrium
B) Left atrium
C) Right ventricle
D) Left ventricle
Answer: D) Left ventricle
16. In the human body, what is responsible for the transport of oxygen?
A) Platelets
B) Leukocytes
C) Erythrocytes
D) Lymphocytes
Answer: C) Erythrocytes
17. The largest gland in the human body is:
A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Heart
D) Pancreas
Answer: A) Liver
18. What is the normal human body temperature?
A) 98°F
B) 98.6°F
C) 99.4°F
D) 100°F
Answer: B) 98.6°F
19. Which of the following is a plant hormone responsible for fruit ripening?
A) Cytokinin
B) Gibberellin
C) Ethylene
D) Auxin
Answer: C) Ethylene
20. A deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B12
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
Answer: D) Vitamin D
21. Which structure in the eye is responsible for detecting light?
A) Retina
B) Iris
C) Lens
D) Cornea
Answer: A) Retina
22. Which of the following is the longest bone in the human body?
A) Femur
B) Humerus
C) Tibia
D) Radius
Answer: A) Femur
23. What is the function of hemoglobin?
A) Fight infections
B) Carry oxygen
C) Clot blood
D) Aid digestion
Answer: B) Carry oxygen
24. Which gland produces adrenaline?
A) Thyroid
B) Pituitary
C) Adrenal
D) Pancreas
Answer: C) Adrenal
25. The process by which green plants make food is called:
A) Fermentation
B) Photosynthesis
C) Respiration
D) Digestion
Answer: B) Photosynthesis
26. The gas commonly used for anesthetic purposes is:
A) Nitrous Oxide
B) Carbon Dioxide
C) Methane
D) Oxygen
Answer: A) Nitrous Oxide
27. What is the chemical formula of water?
A) H2SO4
B) H2O
C) CO2
D) O2
Answer: B) H2O
28. What is the chemical name of Vitamin C?
A) Ascorbic Acid
B) Lactic Acid
C) Acetylsalicylic Acid
D) Ascorbate
Answer: A) Ascorbic Acid
29. Which of these is a saturated hydrocarbon?
A) Methane
B) Ethene
C) Acetylene
D) Benzene
Answer: A) Methane
30. In which state of matter are the particles packed the most tightly?
A) Gas
B) Liquid
C) Solid
D) Plasma
Answer: C) Solid
31. In a chemical reaction, the substance that gains electrons is:
A) Oxidized
B) Reduced
C) Neutralized
D) Displaced
Answer: B) Reduced
32. Which of the following is not an acid?
A) HCl
B) H2SO4
C) NaOH
D) HNO3
Answer: C) NaOH
33. The pH of pure water is:
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
Answer: B) 7
34. The atomic number of carbon is:
A) 6
B) 8
C) 12
D) 14
Answer: A) 6
35. Which element is common to all organic compounds?
A) Nitrogen
B) Hydrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Carbon
Answer: D) Carbon
36. In an aqueous solution, water is the:
A) Solute
B) Solvent
C) Solution
D) Colloid
Answer: B) Solvent
37. What is the product formed when a metal reacts with an acid?
A) Salt and Water
B) Hydrogen and Oxygen
C) Salt and Hydrogen
D) Oxygen and Water
Answer: C) Salt and Hydrogen
38. Which of these is a noble gas?
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Helium
D) Chlorine
Answer: C) Helium
39. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an acid?
A) Sour taste
B) Reacts with metals
C) Turns litmus blue
D) Produces H+ ions in water
Answer: C) Turns litmus blue
40. The main component of natural gas is:
A) Ethane
B) Methane
C) Propane
D) Butane
Answer: B) Methane
41. The unit of force is:
A) Joule
B) Newton
C) Watt
D) Ampere
Answer: B) Newton
42. The SI unit of electric current is:
A) Ampere
B) Volt
C) Ohm
D) Watt
Answer: A) Ampere
43. What is the speed of light in a vacuum?
A) 3 × 10^6 m/s
B) 3 × 10^8 m/s
C) 3 × 10^10 m/s
D) 3 × 10^12 m/s
Answer: B) 3 × 10^8 m/s
44. Which law states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume at constant temperature?
A) Boyle’s Law
B) Charles’s Law
C) Ohm’s Law
D) Avogadro’s Law
Answer: A) Boyle’s Law
45. What is the basic unit of power?
A) Joule
B) Watt
C) Newton
D) Volt
Answer: B) Watt
46. What is the unit of frequency?
A) Ampere
B) Volt
C) Hertz
D) Watt
Answer: C) Hertz
47. When an object moves with uniform velocity, what is its acceleration?
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Zero
D) Undefined
Answer: C) Zero
48. The SI unit of work is:
A) Joule
B) Newton
C) Ampere
D) Volt
Answer: A) Joule
49. What is the total resistance in a series circuit with three resistors, each of 2 ohms?
A) 2 ohms
B) 4 ohms
C) 6 ohms
D) 8 ohms
Answer: C) 6 ohms
50. The weight of an object is the product of its mass and:
A) Volume
B) Distance
C) Gravitational acceleration
D) None of the above
Answer: C) Gravitational acceleration
Top 50 MCQ’s for BDS
51. Which of the following dental materials is most commonly used for class I and class II cavity restorations?
A) Dental Amalgam
B) Composite Resin
C) Glass Ionomer Cement
D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer
Answer: A) Dental Amalgam
52. What is the primary function of cementum in a tooth?
A) To protect the enamel
B) To cover the dentin
C) To anchor the tooth to the alveolar bone
D) To carry nerves
Answer: C) To anchor the tooth to the alveolar bone
53. The presence of which type of bacteria is the main contributor to the initiation of caries?
A) Streptococcus mutans
B) Lactobacillus
C) Candida albicans
D) Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: A) Streptococcus mutans
54. Which of the following teeth is most likely to exhibit dens evaginatus?
A) Permanent maxillary incisors
B) Permanent maxillary first molars
C) Permanent mandibular premolars
D) Mandibular third molars
Answer: C) Permanent mandibular premolars
55. What is the major component of dental calculus?
A) Calcium phosphate
B) Sodium chloride
C) Calcium carbonate
D) Magnesium sulfate
Answer: A) Calcium phosphate
56. A 30-year-old male presents with pain in the lower right posterior tooth. Upon examination, the tooth is sensitive to percussion and palpation. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Chronic periodontitis
B) Acute periapical abscess
C) Acute gingivitis
D) Temporomandibular joint disorder
Answer: B) Acute periapical abscess
57. Which of the following drugs is commonly used to manage acute odontogenic infections?
A) Metronidazole
B) Ibuprofen
C) Paracetamol
D) Tetracycline
Answer: A) Metronidazole
58. Which material is commonly used for crown and bridge restorations in modern dentistry?
A) Stainless Steel
B) Gold
C) Ceramic
D) Acrylic resin
Answer: C) Ceramic
59. The use of fluoride in drinking water helps in the prevention of which dental condition?
A) Gingivitis
B) Dental caries
C) Periodontal disease
D) Tooth discoloration
Answer: B) Dental caries
60. An intraoral radiograph shows a radiolucent area at the apex of a tooth root. What does this suggest?
A) Periodontal disease
B) Periapical abscess
C) Enamel hypoplasia
D) Cementoblastoma
Answer: B) Periapical abscess
61. What is the major complication of untreated periodontal disease?
A) Tooth sensitivity
B) Tooth mobility
C) Tooth discoloration
D) Root fracture
Answer: B) Tooth mobility
62. The main action of acetaminophen (paracetamol) is:
A) Anti-inflammatory
B) Analgesic
C) Antipyretic
D) Both B and C
Answer: D) Both B and C
63. When discussing the maxillary first molar, the cusp of Carabelli is located on:
A) The mesiobuccal cusp
B) The distobuccal cusp
C) The mesiolingual cusp
D) The distolingual cusp
Answer: C) The mesiolingual cusp
64. Which type of bacteria is most often found in the subgingival plaque of patients with chronic periodontitis?
A) Streptococcus mutans
B) Porphyromonas gingivalis
C) Fusobacterium nucleatum
D) Actinomyces viscosus
Answer: B) Porphyromonas gingivalis
65. In the context of dental anatomy, which structure is characterized as the hardest substance in the body?
A) Dentin
B) Bone
C) Enamel
D) Cementum
Answer: C) Enamel
66. The pulp chamber of a tooth is primarily made of:
A) Connective tissue
B) Dentin
C) Blood vessels and nerves
D) Enamel
Answer: C) Blood vessels and nerves
67. Which type of dental restoration is best suited for endodontically treated teeth?
A) Resin-based composites
B) Dental crowns
C) Dental amalgam
D) Veneers
Answer: B) Dental crowns
68. Which of the following best describes the gingival sulcus?
A) The space between the tooth and the alveolar bone
B) The natural pocket around the crown of the tooth
C) The point where the cementum and enamel meet
D) A groove between the two cusps of a molar
Answer: B) The natural pocket around the crown of the tooth
69. A dental impression used for studying and creating models for a dental prosthesis is most commonly made from:
A) Alginate
B) Zinc oxide eugenol
C) Polyether
D) Silicone
Answer: A) Alginate
70. Which of the following materials is preferred for making temporary restorations in an operative setting?
A) Resin composites
B) Zinc phosphate cement
C) Glass ionomer cement
D) Cavit
Answer: D) Cavit
71. The periapical region of a tooth is important in:
A) Aesthetic changes
B) Toleration of heat
C) Nerve and blood vessel supply to the tooth
D) Maintaining color uniformity
Answer: C) Nerve and blood vessel supply to the tooth
72. Which of the following conditions may occur when an upper first molar is severely tilted?
A) Crowding in the lower arch
B) Overbite in the lower arch
C) Supernumerary teeth
D) Prolonged eruption of the maxillary incisors
Answer: A) Crowding in the lower arch
73. A condition where teeth exhibit enamel hypoplasia and are marked by horizontal grooves is known as:
A) Rickets
B) Fluorosis
C) Ectodermal dysplasia
D) Amelogenesis imperfecta
Answer: B) Fluorosis
74. In orthodontics, the use of braces aims primarily to:
A) Achieve ideal occlusion
B) Prevent periodontal disease
C) Enhance chewing function
D) Increase the height of the upper jaw
Answer: A) Achieve ideal occlusion
75. Which of the following is the most common complication after tooth extraction?
A) Post-operative infection
B) Tooth dislocation
C) Nerve damage
D) Exposed pulp
Answer: A) Post-operative infection
76. Gingivitis is primarily caused by:
A) Tooth erosion
B) Fungal infections
C) Plaque buildup and inflammation
D) Food particles accumulation
Answer: C) Plaque buildup and inflammation
77. The acceptable hardness test for dental materials uses which of the following to measure resistance to indentation?
A) Vickers Hardness Test
B) Brinell Hardness Test
C) Mohs Hardness Scale
D) Rockwell Hardness Test
Answer: A) Vickers Hardness Test
78. The most significant cause of pain during pulpal exposure is:
A) Chemical irritation
B) Mechanical irritation
C) Thermal irritation
D) Bacterial irritation
Answer: D) Bacterial irritation
79. Which of the following is an indirect restorative material for inlays or onlays?
A) Composite resin
B) Dental amalgam
C) Gold
D) Resin-modified glass ionomer
Answer: C) Gold
80. Periodontal disease is generally associated with which kind of microbiota?
A) Facultative anaerobes
B) Aerobic bacteria
C) Obligate anaerobes
D) Facultative aerobes
Answer: C) Obligate anaerobes
81. The function of the tongue in oral cavity protection includes:
A) Prevention of dental caries
B) Detection of temperature and taste
C) Actively deglutition of food
D) Generation of saliva
Answer: B) Detection of temperature and taste
82. The Frontal sinus is located:
A) In the maxilla
B) Above the eyes in the forehead region
C) At the back of the head
D) In the region near the ear
Answer: B) Above the eyes in the forehead region
83. A lesion that is firm, raised, and shows no pain is often described as:
A) Ulcerated
B) Pustular
C) Nodular
D) Eroded
Answer: C) Nodular
84. Dental pulpitis primarily involves inflammation in:
A) Enamel
B) Dentin
C) Cementum
D) Pulp
Answer: D) Pulp
85. Which oral condition is most often associated with systemic autoimmune diseases?
A) Angular cheilitis
B) Canker sores
C) Lichen planus
D) Herpes simplex virus infection
Answer: C) Lichen planus
86. Prophylactic antibiotics are generally recommended before dental procedures for patients who:
A) Have a common cold
B) Are undergoing orthodontic treatment
C) Are at risk of infective endocarditis
D) Have undergone minor extractions
Answer: C) Are at risk of infective endocarditis
87. The enamel organ is derived from which of the following?
A) Ectoderm
B) Mesoderm
C) Endoderm
D) Neural crest cells
Answer: A) Ectoderm
88. In children, primary teeth generally emerge at what age?
A) 6–12 months
B) 2–4 years
C) 3–6 years
D) 1–2 years
Answer: A) 6–12 months
89. The facial surface of the permanent first molar is often the site of which dental condition?
A) Plaque formation
B) Root resorption
C) Caries formation
D) Enamel fluorosis
Answer: C) Caries formation
90. The most important factor in determining the successful outcome of a root canal therapy is:
A) Quality of the filling material
B) Length of the root canal filling
C) Obturation technique
D) Removal of all infected tissue
Answer: D) Removal of all infected tissue
91. Which method is commonly used for the sterilization of dental hand instruments?
A) Boiling
B) Dry heat sterilization
C) Ultraviolet irradiation
D) Chemical vapor sterilization
Answer: B) Dry heat sterilization
92. The anatomy of the human tooth’s root typically consists of which part?
A) Root canal
B) Root surface
C) Apical foramen
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
93. Bruxism primarily affects which type of teeth?
A) Incisors
B) Molars
C) Premolars
D) All teeth
Answer: D) All teeth
94. What does “crossbite” refer to in dental terms?
A) A malocclusion where the upper teeth bite inside the lower teeth
B) A disorder related to excessive tooth eruption
C) A condition where the upper and lower teeth align perfectly
D) The failure of molars to erupt properly
Answer: A) A malocclusion where the upper teeth bite inside the lower teeth
95. The term “fistula” is used to describe:
A) An abnormal opening between the tooth root and the surface
B) A normal communication between two oral structures
C) A type of oral cancer
D) A stage of active gum infection
Answer: A) An abnormal opening between the tooth root and the surface
96. A patient with a root canal-treated tooth may experience:
A) Severe sensitivity to hot or cold
B) Numbness of the affected tooth area
C) Complete elimination of all dental pain
D) Gum recession only
Answer: B) Numbness of the affected tooth area
97. The permanent premolar teeth primarily function in:
A) Cutting
B) Grinding and tearing
C) Mastication and grinding
D) Speech articulation
Answer: C) Mastication and grinding
98. What kind of tooth movement is most commonly used in orthodontics?
A) Extrusion
B) Intrusion
C) Rotation
D) Translation
Answer: D) Translation
99. The characteristic radiographic sign for horizontal bone loss in periodontal disease is:
A) Widening of the periodontal ligament
B) Vertical bone loss
C) “Sunburst” pattern in the alveolar bone
D) Horizontal reduction in the bone height
Answer: D) Horizontal reduction in the bone height
100. Which of the following disorders may contribute to the discoloration of teeth?
A) Use of tetracycline
B) Salivary duct disorders
C) Overuse of fluoride supplements
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Top 50 MCQ’s for AYUSH
101. The body’s first line of defense against pathogens is:
A) Skin and mucous membranes
B) Phagocytes
C) Antibodies
D) Complement proteins
Answer: A) Skin and mucous membranes
102. The primary role of antibodies is to:
A) Neutralize toxins
B) Phagocytize pathogens
C) Digest food
D) Produce hormones
Answer: A) Neutralize toxins
103. Which enzyme is involved in breaking down carbohydrates in the mouth?
A) Amylase
B) Pepsin
C) Lipase
D) Trypsin
Answer: A) Amylase
104. Which part of the eye is responsible for focusing light on the retina?
A) Cornea
B) Iris
C) Lens
D) Retina
Answer: C) Lens
105. The hormone insulin is produced by the:
A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Thyroid
D) Kidneys
Answer: B) Pancreas
106. Which of the following is the largest gland in the human body?
A) Thyroid
B) Liver
C) Pancreas
D) Pituitary
Answer: B) Liver
107. Which is the most abundant mineral in the human body?
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Potassium
D) Magnesium
Answer: B) Calcium
108. What is the basic structural unit of the kidney?
A) Glomerulus
B) Nephron
C) Capsule
D) Bowman’s space
Answer: B) Nephron
109. The term ‘homeostasis’ refers to:
A) Maintaining body temperature
B) Balancing levels of oxygen
C) Maintaining stable internal conditions
D) Release of waste products
Answer: C) Maintaining stable internal conditions
110. Which vitamin is responsible for the proper functioning of vision?
A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin A
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin E
Answer: B) Vitamin A
111. Which part of the brain is responsible for regulating heartbeat and breathing?
A) Cerebrum
B) Medulla Oblongata
C) Cerebellum
D) Thalamus
Answer: B) Medulla Oblongata
112. The primary function of the ribosomes in the cell is:
A) Production of proteins
B) Replication of DNA
C) Storage of genetic material
D) Synthesis of lipids
Answer: A) Production of proteins
113. In which of the following organs is bile produced?
A) Liver
B) Gallbladder
C) Small intestine
D) Pancreas
Answer: A) Liver
114. The process of turning glucose into energy in cells is called:
A) Glycolysis
B) Gluconeogenesis
C) Glucogenolysis
D) Glycogenesis
Answer: A) Glycolysis
115. Which of these is the powerhouse of the cell?
A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondrion
C) Golgi apparatus
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: B) Mitochondrion
116. The term “hereditary material” refers to:
A) RNA
B) Protein
C) DNA
D) Carbohydrates
Answer: C) DNA
117. Which of the following is responsible for transporting oxygen in the blood?
A) White blood cells
B) Platelets
C) Red blood cells
D) Plasma
Answer: C) Red blood cells
118. Which lymphocyte is primarily involved in producing antibodies?
A) T-lymphocytes
B) B-lymphocytes
C) Neutrophils
D) Monocytes
Answer: B) B-lymphocytes
119. The basic structural unit of bone is called:
A) Osteocyte
B) Osteoblast
C) Osteon
D) Osteoclast
Answer: C) Osteon
120. A mutation in the gene that codes for hemoglobin leads to:
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Sickle cell anemia
C) Diabetes
D) Hemophilia
Answer: B) Sickle cell anemia
121. Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for coordination and balance?
A) Cerebellum
B) Thalamus
C) Medulla
D) Hippocampus
Answer: A) Cerebellum
122. A chemical signal that regulates metabolism is a:
A) Hormone
B) Enzyme
C) Antibody
D) Neurotransmitter
Answer: A) Hormone
123. The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form for plants is called:
A) Denitrification
B) Nitrogen fixation
C) Nitrification
D) Ammonification
Answer: B) Nitrogen fixation
124. The red bone marrow produces:
A) Platelets
B) Hormones
C) Lymphocytes
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
125. The muscular system’s primary function is:
A) Carrying nutrients
B) Circulating blood
C) Generating movement
D) Detecting changes
Answer: C) Generating movement
126. The process of converting light energy into chemical energy in plants is called:
A) Transpiration
B) Respiration
C) Photosynthesis
D) Digestion
Answer: C) Photosynthesis
127. Which of the following is involved in blood clotting?
A) Red blood cells
B) Platelets
C) White blood cells
D) Plasma
Answer: B) Platelets
128. The largest part of the human brain responsible for thought processes is the:
A) Cerebellum
B) Cerebrum
C) Medulla
D) Thalamus
Answer: B) Cerebrum
129. Which of the following vitamins is primarily involved in the blood clotting process?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin D
Answer: C) Vitamin K
130. A deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets?
A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin A
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin E
Answer: C) Vitamin D
131. The process by which plants lose water vapor through stomata is called:
A) Transpiration
B) Evaporation
C) Perspiration
D) Precipitation
Answer: A) Transpiration
132. Which component of the blood carries oxygen?
A) Red blood cells
B) Platelets
C) White blood cells
D) Plasma
Answer: A) Red blood cells
133. The muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdomen is known as:
A) Abdominis
B) Diaphragm
C) Rectus
D) Intercostals
Answer: B) Diaphragm
134. Which of the following tissues are responsible for transporting water and minerals in plants?
A) Phloem
B) Xylem
C) Epidermis
D) Parenchyma
Answer: B) Xylem
135. Which hormone is responsible for controlling the sleep-wake cycle?
A) Melatonin
B) Cortisol
C) Growth hormone
D) Adrenaline
Answer: A) Melatonin
136. The part of the brain responsible for processing auditory information is the:
A) Parietal lobe
B) Temporal lobe
C) Frontal lobe
D) Occipital lobe
Answer: B) Temporal lobe
137. Which type of immunity is gained after being infected with a virus?
A) Passive immunity
B) Active immunity
C) Inborn immunity
D) Artificial immunity
Answer: B) Active immunity
138. Which organ is responsible for detoxifying harmful substances in the body?
A) Heart
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Kidney
Answer: C) Liver
139. The process of cell division leading to two identical daughter cells is called:
A) Mitosis
B) Meiosis
C) Binary fission
D) Fragmentation
Answer: A) Mitosis
140. Which of the following hormones regulates the fight or flight response?
A) Insulin
B) Estrogen
C) Adrenaline
D) Thyroxine
Answer: C) Adrenaline
141. The pigment responsible for the red color in plants is:
A) Chlorophyll
B) Xanthophyll
C) Anthocyanin
D) Carotene
Answer: C) Anthocyanin
142. A molecule that speeds up chemical reactions without being consumed is known as a:
A) Catalyst
B) Enzyme
C) Reactant
D) Product
Answer: B) Enzyme
143. The human body contains approximately how many bones at birth?
A) 206
B) 350
C) 300
D) 250
Answer: C) 300
144. The region of the brain that connects the left and right hemispheres is the:
A) Cerebellum
B) Corpus callosum
C) Medulla
D) Hypothalamus
Answer: B) Corpus callosum
145. Which of the following statements is true about the skeletal system?
A) It stores proteins
B) It produces blood cells
C) It stores glucose
D) It regulates metabolism
Answer: B) It produces blood cells
146. What is the pH of gastric juice in the stomach?
A) Neutral
B) 6-7
C) 1-2
D) 4-5
Answer: C) 1-2
147. In humans, the site for the exchange of gases between blood and air is the:
A) Bronchi
B) Alveoli
C) Trachea
D) Lungs
Answer: B) Alveoli
148. Which structure in the heart prevents the backflow of blood?
A) Valve
B) Artery
C) Vein
D) Septum
Answer: A) Valve
149. The yellow coloration in jaundice is due to the accumulation of:
A) Bilirubin
B) Oxygen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Urea
Answer: A) Bilirubin
150. Which enzyme is responsible for digestion of fats?
A) Amylase
B) Pepsin
C) Lipase
D) Trypsin
Answer: C) Lipase
Top 50 MCQ’s for MD/MS
151. The first part of the small intestine is:
A) Jejunum
B) Ileum
C) Duodenum
D) Cecum
Answer: C) Duodenum
152. The enzyme responsible for breaking down starch in the mouth is:
A) Amylase
B) Lipase
C) Pepsin
D) Trypsin
Answer: A) Amylase
153. The main function of the large intestine is:
A) Digestion of fats
B) Absorption of water and electrolytes
C) Digestion of proteins
D) Synthesis of digestive enzymes
Answer: b) Absorption of water and electrolytes
154. The function of villi in the small intestine is:
A) Increase surface area for absorption
B) Secretion of enzymes
C) Secretion of mucus
D) Digestion of proteins
Answer: A) Increase surface area for absorption
155. The total number of cranial nerves in the human body is:
A) 8
B) 12
C) 16
D) 10
Answer: b) 12
156. The function of insulin is:
A) Increase blood glucose
B) Decrease blood glucose
C) Convert glycogen into glucose
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Decrease blood glucose
157. The most common site for thrombus formation in veins is:
A) Leg veins
B) Pulmonary veins
C) Heart veins
D) Jugular veins
Answer: A) Leg veins
158. The type of blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood is:
A) Artery
B) Vein
C) Lymphatic vessel
D) Capillary
Answer: A) Artery
159. The hormone responsible for milk ejection from mammary glands is:
A) Prolactin
B) Oxytocin
C) Estrogen
D) Progesterone
Answer: B) Oxytocin
160. The process of formation of sperm cells is called:
A) Oogenesis
B) Spermatogenesis
C) Mitosis
D) Meiosis
Answer: B) Spermatogenesis
161. In which part of the body is the Golgi apparatus found?
A) Cytoplasm
B) Nucleus
C) Plasma membrane
D) Mitochondria
Answer: A) Cytoplasm
162. The enzyme that helps in protein digestion is:
A) Amylase
B) Pepsin
C) Lipase
D) Lactase
Answer: B) Pepsin
163. In humans, the heart has how many chambers?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: D) 4
164. The largest gland in the human body is:
A) Pancreas
B) Thyroid
C) Liver
D) Spleen
Answer: C) Liver
165. What is the function of platelets?
A) Oxygen transport
B) Blood clotting
C) Immunity
D) Hormone production
Answer: B) Blood clotting
166. The blue color of veins is due to:
A) Lack of oxygen
B) Presence of carbon dioxide
C) Low hemoglobin
D) High oxygen content
Answer: A) Lack of oxygen
167. The primary function of the lymphatic system is:
A) Circulation of blood
B) Regulation of the body’s temperature
C) Absorption of fats and drainage of tissue fluid
D) Immunity
Answer: C) Absorption of fats and drainage of tissue fluid
168. The liver is located in which of the following cavities?
A) Thoracic
B) Abdominal
C) Cranial
D) Pelvic
Answer: B) Abdominal
169. The most abundant protein in the human body is:
A) Collagen
B) Hemoglobin
C) Myosin
D) Actin
Answer: A) Collagen
170. Blood pressure is highest in which of the following?
A) Arteries
B) Veins
C) Capillaries
D) Lymphatic vessels
Answer: A) Arteries
171. The process of RNA synthesis from DNA is called:
A) Translation
B) Replication
C) Transcription
D) Transformation
Answer: C) Transcription
172. The primary function of the white blood cells is:
A) Oxygen transport
B) Blood clotting
C) Fighting infection
D) Nutrient absorption
Answer: C) Fighting infection
173. The layer of the skin responsible for sensation is:
A) Epidermis
B) Dermis
C) Subcutaneous layer
D) All of the above
Answer: B) Dermis
174. The outermost layer of the skin is called:
A) Dermis
B) Epidermis
C) Hypodermis
D) Endodermis
Answer: B) Epidermis
175. Which of the following is responsible for the production of bile?
A) Liver
B) Gallbladder
C) Pancreas
D) Stomach
Answer: A) Liver
176. The pH of gastric juice is:
A) 3-4
B) 7-8
C) 12-13
D) 5-6
Answer: A) 3-4
177. The main function of the pancreas is to:
A) Produce insulin
B) Secrete digestive enzymes
C) Produce bile
D) Both a and b
Answer: D) Both a and b
178. The process of breathing is regulated by the:
A) Heart
B) Brainstem
C) Lungs
D) Stomach
Answer: B) Brainstem
179. The function of the kidneys is to:
A) Filter blood and produce urine
B) Secrete insulin
C) Produce digestive enzymes
D) Absorb nutrients
Answer: A) Filter blood and produce urine
180. The basic unit of the nervous system is the:
A) Neuron
B) Muscle cell
C) White blood cell
D) Erythrocyte
Answer: A) Neuron
181. The largest organ in the human body is:
A) Heart
B) Brain
C) Skin
D) Liver
Answer: C) Skin
182. The essential vitamin for blood clotting is:
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin D
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin C
Answer: C) Vitamin K
183. The part of the brain responsible for balance and coordination is the:
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Medulla Oblongata
D) Thalamus
Answer: B) Cerebellum
184. The structure that regulates the passage of food into the stomach is called the:
A) Pyloric sphincter
B) Cardiac sphincter
C) Anus
D) Colon
Answer: B) Cardiac sphincter
185. The body’s main source of energy is:
A) Protein
B) Fats
C) Carbohydrates
D) Water
Answer: C) Carbohydrates
186. The number of bones in an adult human body is:
A) 206
B) 305
C) 400
D) 405
Answer: A) 206
187. The protein found in hair, nails, and skin is:
A) Collagen
B) Elastin
C) Keratin
D) Actin
Answer: C) Keratin
188. The site of sperm maturation and storage is the:
A) Testes
B) Epididymis
C) Prostate
D) Seminal vesicle
Answer: B) Epididymis
189. The white blood cell responsible for the production of antibodies is:
A) Neutrophil
B) Eosinophil
C) Lymphocyte
D) Monocyte
Answer: C) Lymphocyte
190. Which of the following is the most common cause of anemia?
A) Vitamin B12 deficiency
B) Iron deficiency
C) Leukemia
D) Malaria
Answer: B) Iron deficiency
191. A person with blood type A can donate blood to:
A) Type B
B) Type AB
C) Type O
D) Type A
Answer: D) Type A
192. The process by which a cell divides into two identical cells is:
A) Mitosis
B) Meiosis
C) Cytokinesis
D) Germination
Answer: A) Mitosis
193. The pacemaker of the heart is located in the:
A) Right atrium
B) Left atrium
C) Right ventricle
D) Left ventricle
Answer: A) Right atrium
194. The average normal body temperature is:
A) 96.8°F
B) 98.6°F
C) 100°F
D) 101.2°F
Answer: B) 98.6°F
195. The process of removing waste products from the body through urine is called:
A) Excretion
B) Filtration
C) Secretion
D) Absorption
Answer: A) Excretion
196. The nutrient essential for the formation of hemoglobin is:
A) Vitamin C
B) Iron
C) Magnesium
D) Zinc
Answer: B) Iron
197. The largest blood vessel in the human body is the:
A) Aorta
B) Vena cava
C) Pulmonary artery
D) Renal vein
Answer: A) Aorta
198. The movement of molecules against the concentration gradient is known as:
A) Diffusion
B) Osmosis
C) Active transport
D) Facilitated diffusion
Answer: C) Active transport
199. The chief function of the lymphatic system is:
A) Regulation of body temperature
B) Transport of oxygen to tissues
C) Removal of waste products
D) Immunity
Answer: D) Immunity
200. The vitamin important for eye vision is:
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
Answer: A) Vitamin A
The National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) is the primary medical entrance exam in India, used to determine admission to undergraduate medical programs such as MBBS and BDS, in government and private colleges across the country. Conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA), NEET is a pen-and-paper-based exam that assesses candidates’ knowledge in subjects like Physics, Chemistry and Biology. NEET is recognized by medical institutions and universities, making it a key step for students aspiring to become doctors. It is one of the most competitive exams in India, attracting millions of applicants each year.
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